Abstract

The Barber paradox is often introduced as a popular version of Russell’s paradox, though some experts have denied their similarity, evencalling the Barber paradox a pseudoparadox. In the first part of thepaper, I demonstrate mainly that in the standard (Quinean) defini-tion of a paradox the Barber paradox is a clear-cut example of a non-paradox. Despite some outward similarities, it differs radically fromRussell’s paradox. I also expose many other differences. In the secondpart of the paper, I examine a probable source of the paradoxicality ofthe Barber paradox, which is found in a certain ambivalence in terms ofmeaning. The two different readings of the crucial phrase yield distinctexistential assumptions which produce the paradoxical conclusion.